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Originally Posted by spence
Doesn’t matter if it was linked to campaign funds or private cash. If the payoffs were intended to influence the election, which Cohen said they were, and they were directed by Trump, which Cohen says they were under oath, then Trump quite likely is looking at a clearly impeachable offense.
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All campaign funds are for the purpose of influencing an election. I don't understand what you are getting at here. If the money was not a campaign finance violation, then what violation exists?
Mark Levin, referring to the federal campaign laws, says that a campaign expenditure is solely for campaign activity. A candidate who spends his own money or even corporate money for an event that occurred not as a result of a campaign is not a campaign expenditure.
The event for which the expenditure was made in this case occurred before the campaign. The expenditure, itself, is not a violation. Neither was the "event." Now if the "event" is construed as being the suppression, the hushing, of the original event, then, regardless of what Cohen said, Trump can reasonably and legitimately say that it was to hide the affair from his wife, or family.