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Old 09-14-2016, 01:28 PM   #37
PaulS
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jim in CT;1108296
"Why else would the Repub. do it if there is no fraud?"

One reason is because there is, in fact, some fraud. Not a lot, naturally. But not "no fraud", either.
[COLOR="Red"
So the Repub. will disenfranchise lots of minorities bc there is "some fraud". In some of the states these types of laws have been enacted, there is been 0 fraud.[/COLOR]
"it targeted African-Americans with almost surgical precision"

But WHY??? We have discussed this numerous times - pls go back and read those postings. And that is a different issue. The issue her is why did the Repub. legisl. in many states pass these type of laws. The reason is to prevent minorities from voting..

I deleted my original post bc I didn't read the 1st page. So I responded and then saw wdmso brought up the same "surgical precision".
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