[The Dad Fisherman]

Originally Posted by wdmso

from 1 of the ruling states its provisions deliberately “target African-Americans with almost surgical precision” in an effort to depress black
turnout at the polls.

So you make a statement that it targets African-Americans

Originally Posted by The Dad Fisherman

How?

I ask How? as in "How does it target them, specifically?"

I think it would target all people who can't produce proof of citizenship, not just blacks. which has absolutely nothing to do with race

Originally Posted by wdmso

I dont know ? try research.. I am not the judge who made the ruling

but it seems they saw How..

so your answer is....You don't know....

If your going to make a statement, shouldn't you, at the very least, know why you're making it...I mean, if you were my crazy uncle in the nursing home I might let you slide on why you say the things you say.

but you made that statement with such conviction....you may want to know why


....and you also told me to look it up....so I did.

they....not he (it was a 3 person appeals court) Ruled that the person who made the change to the form, requiring proof of citizenship, wasn't authorized to do so. Nowhere in their ruling did they say that it was going to “target African-Americans with almost surgical precision” just that he didn't have the right to make the change.

and of the 2-1 decision....one judge was a Democrat and one was a Republican

But feel free to insert Racism between the lines.....it's so 2016 now

so, again, how does requiring proof of citizenship to vote "“target African-Americans with almost surgical precision”?