[Pete F.]

Originally Posted by Pete F.

In the course of my official duties, I have received information from multiple U.S. Government officials that the President of the United States is using the power of his office to solicit interference from a foreign country in the 2020 U.S. election.

Trump’s ask of Zelensky was so grave that both the CIA general counsel, Courtney Simmons Elwood, and the general counsel at the National Security Council, John Eisenberg, decided the accusations had a “reasonable basis” and together called the Justice Department on Aug. 14 to discuss how to handle them. Elwood reportedly intended this call to be a criminal referral about the president’s conduct. Later in August, the Acting Director of National Intelligence and Inspector General for the Intelligence Community referred the allegations to the Justice Department as a possible criminal matter. This means that upon learning of Trump’s ask alone (forget everything else we’ve learned), multiple senior government lawyers, all appointed by Trump, were worried the president had committed a crime.

Originally Posted by detbuch

This is the original spin that started this mess. It was an assumption, not a fact, that it was specifically about the 2020 election not about corruption.

Originally Posted by detbuch

''In the course of my official duties, I have received information from multiple U.S. Government officials that the President of the United States is using the power of his office to solicit interference from a foreign country in the 2020 U.S. election".

Originally Posted by detbuch

"could" and "construed to be" are assumptions, spin is assumption.

Originally Posted by Pete F.

And the whistleblowers report per the law was supposed to go where in order that the parties deemed responsible could determine what validity it had?
Into hiding, or to Congress?
Where in the law did it say that it could be shelved, hidden, covered up?

Given how damning the basic facts are, imagine how compelling the case/evidence would be if Trump hadn’t obstructed the investigation so thoroughly?

Originally Posted by detbuch

OK, just keep moving the goalposts. I can't keep up. I thought we were talking about spin. The whistleblowers report did not have to include the assumption (spin) that Trump was acting in respect to the 2020 elections. If, without that spin, the withholding of money was so "damning," then that would be enough to investigate it. Why was it necessary to inject an opinion of what Trump's motives were? He explained what his motive was.

That assumption is why he thought it should be reported, others concurred, some thought it was criminal.
What was supposed to happen per the law to a whistleblowers report deemed reportable by the officials having jurisdiction?