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Originally Posted by detbuch
This sounds like your slick con artistry at work. What do you mean by "can be met"? Are you referring to some verbal manipulation to circumvent protocol text? Either the standards are met by the asylum claimant or they are not. Why would any provisions be necessary if the asylum standards are already met?
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They still have to meet the individual evidenced requirements obviously.
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If a government is "unwilling" to provide protection from gangs and rapes, then the government is complicit and responsible for the persecution. In that case, asylum is met under the rubric of political persecution. It has to be proven that the government is deliberately not protecting the claimant.
Should the citizens of the South side of Chicago, under UN protocols, be granted asylum into Switzerland because of the persistent threat of gang violence?
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The citizens of Chicago are under the protection of the Chicago police and the FBI. Most all the gang violence is gang on gang. If the gangs are prosecuting non-gang members or threatening prosecution of non-gang members the police will intervene.
It's an absurd comparison.
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